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Peoplecert ITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Management Exam Sample Questions (Q15-Q20):

NEW QUESTION # 15
What is MOST LIKELY to affect how significantly an organization's release management activities are dependent on partners and suppliers?

A. The maturity of the release management practice
B. The source of the organization's products and technology solutions
C. The amount of automation in the release management practice
D. The knowledge level of the organization's users

Answer: B

Explanation:
The dependency on partners and suppliers in release management is influenced by the extent to which an organization relies on external products or services. TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Management document explains:"The source of the organization's products and technology solutions significantly affects the dependency on partners and suppliers, as reliance on externalsoftware, hardware, or services increases the need for coordination during releases"(Section 3.4).
* Option A (The knowledge level of users) impacts user adoption but not the dependency on suppliers for release activities.
* Option B (The maturity of the practice) affects internal efficiency, not the structural dependency on external parties.
* Option C (The amount of automation) influences how releases are executed but doesn't determine the dependency on suppliers.
* Option D (The source of products and technology solutions) directly determines how much the organization relies on external parties, affecting release management dependency.
The correct answer is D, as the source of technology solutions most significantly impacts supplier dependency.

NEW QUESTION # 16
A service provider is conducting a capability assessment of the release management practice. It has been found that although the practice's performance is regularly reported and reviewed, most recommendations based on the reports are never implemented. What is the MAXIMUM capability level that could be given to the release management practice?

A. Level 3
B. Level 2
C. Level 4
D. Level 5

Answer: B

Explanation:
The ITIL capability model assesses practices based on their maturity and ability to improve. TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument outlines the capability levels:"Level 2 (Managed) indicates that the practice is planned and tracked, with performance regularly reported. Level 3 (Defined) requires standardized processes and the ability to improve based on feedback. If recommendations from performance reviews are not implemented, the practice cannot achieve Level 3"(Section 5.2).
* The scenario indicates that performance is reported and reviewed (meeting Level 2 requirements), but recommendations are not implemented, meaning there's no improvement or standardization beyond basic management.
* Level 3 requires consistent improvement and standardization, which is not met due to the lack of implementation.
* Levels 4 (Quantitatively Managed) and 5 (Optimizing) require even higher maturity, including data- driven improvements and continuous optimization, which are not applicable here.
The maximum capability level is A (Level 2), as the practice is managed but not improving.

NEW QUESTION # 17
A service owner is initiating the release planning and coordination process for a complex project. What is an example of the FIRST activity that the service owner should undertake in this instance?

A. Select a release model that fits with the types of changes to be included in the release
B. Ensure that the release procedures are appropriate for the particular release under consideration
C. Check that an automated notification has been sent to stakeholders
D. Test the service components and take remedial action as necessary

Answer: A

Explanation:
The release planning and coordination process begins with defining the approach for the release. TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument states:"The first step in release planning and coordination is to select an appropriate release model that fits the types of changes to be included in the release. This ensures that the release approach aligns with the nature and complexity of the changes"(Section 3.2.1).
* Option A (Test the service components) is part of the release execution or testing phase, not the first step in planning.
* Option B (Ensure that the release procedures are appropriate) is a subsequent step after selecting the model, to confirm procedural alignment.
* Option C (Select a release model) is the first activity, as it sets the foundation for how the release will be structured and managed, especially for a complex project.
* Option D (Check that an automated notification has been sent) occurs later, during the communication phase of the release process.
The correct answer is C, as selecting the release model is the initial step in release planning.

NEW QUESTION # 18
A release manager has decided on a policy of not allowing users to choose to accept software updates. What is this an example of?

A. A 'pull' approach
B. Continuous integration
C. Continuous delivery
D. A 'push' approach

Answer: D

Explanation:
TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument explains the difference between push and pull approaches in release management:"In a push approach, updates are deployed to users without giving them a choice, often to ensure compliance or security. In a pull approach, users can choose when to adopt updates" (Section 3.2.3).
* Option A (A 'pull' approach) is incorrect because a pull approach allows users to choose when to accept updates, which contradicts the scenario.
* Option B (A 'push' approach) is correct, as the policy of not allowing users to choose means the updates are automatically deployed to them, fitting the definition of a push approach.
* Option C (Continuous delivery) and Option D (Continuous integration) are development practices, not release deployment strategies. Continuous delivery involves making releases available frequently, but it doesn't specify whether users must accept them (push) or can choose (pull).
The scenario describes a push approach, making B the correct answer.

NEW QUESTION # 19
During a value stream walk of the incident resolution value stream, an organization has realized that some incidents take longer to resolve because installation of overdue software updates is required. What should the organization do to improve the incident resolution times?

A. Include release of the required updates in the incident resolution activities
B. Ensure that required updates are included in the release of the new services
C. Include release of the required updates in the request fulfilment activities
D. Ensure that required updates are enforced as part of the ongoing operations and maintenance

Answer: D

Explanation:
This scenario involves using technology to improve incident resolution by addressing overdue updates. The ITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument states:"To prevent delays in incident resolution due to overdue updates, release management can enforce updates as part of ongoing operations and maintenance, using automated tools to ensure systems are up-to-date"(Section 4.2).
* Option A (Include updates in incident resolution activities) is reactive and inefficient, as it delays resolution by embedding release activities into incident handling.
* Option B (Ensure updates are enforced as part of ongoing operations and maintenance) is proactive, using technology to keep systems updated, thus reducing incident resolution times by preventing the issue.
* Option C (Include updates in request fulfilment activities) addresses user requests, not the root cause of incident delays.
* Option D (Ensure updates are included in the release of new services) doesn't address existing systems needing updates, only new services.
The correct answer is B, as it leverages technology in operations to proactively manage updates, aligning with ITIL 4 principles.

NEW QUESTION # 20
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Peoplecert ITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Management Exam Sample Questions (Q15-Q20):

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